I would like to thank Brother Hicks for his opening summary. There are certainly some things in it that I would like to respond to and discuss along the way, but I will try to at least start out adhering to the format we agreed to.
The first question for discussion is the following:
1. The predicted second coming of Christ: Was it to be physical, visible to human eyes, or was it to be symbolic, invisible, seen only in the sense of interpreting an incident in Israel’s history?
For purposes of addressing this question, I am defining “predicted” as any foretelling, prophecy, or typological foreshadowing of the consummating eschatological return or parousia of Christ. I am also interpreting the term “symbolic” as it relates to the metaphorical language used in these predictions, and not in any manner that lessens the reality of the events in question, even if they are found to be spiritual (non-empirical) in their fulfillment.
There are a wealth of passages and prophecies that we could spend a great deal of time examining in order to complete the picture that the scriptures paint of the eschatological arrival of Christ. To begin, let’s look at 1 Thessalonians 4, which virtually all would agree contemplates the second coming that is referred to in the question.
15 For this we say to you by the word of the Lord, that we who are alive and remain until the coming of the Lord will by no means precede those who are asleep. 16 For the Lord Himself will descend from heaven with a shout, with the voice of an archangel, and with the trumpet of God. And the dead in Christ will rise first. 17 Then we who are alive and remain shall be caught up together with them in the clouds to meet the Lord in the air. And thus we shall always be with the Lord. 18 Therefore comfort one another with these words.
Whatever is the mode of the coming described here and whatever is its timing, we have a number of contingent details that are said to accompany the “coming of the Lord” described by Paul in these verses.
* Christ will descend from heaven
* He will be accompanied by angels
* He will come with the sounding of the trumpet of God
* He will come in the clouds
* He will be joined by both the dead and the living in Christ
About these details, there can be little disagreement. Whatever we may say about he mode and timing of the fulfillment of this passage, the attendant details to this event are clearly delineated. This is, as Bother Hicks calls it, an “explicit scripture statement.”
It is important to notice the beginning of verse 15 where Paul says “For this we say to you by the word of the Lord…”. Paul states that he is here reminding them of what Christ had said. It would be helpful if we had a record of Christ addressing this same sequence of events in support of Paul’s claim.
To that end, please consider Matthew 24:
29 Immediately after the tribulation of those days shall the sun be darkened, and the moon shall not give her light, and the stars shall fall from heaven, and the powers of the heavens shall be shaken: 30And then shall appear the sign of the Son of man in heaven: and then shall all the tribes of the earth mourn, and they shall see the Son of man coming in the clouds of heaven with power and great glory. 31And he shall send his angels with a great sound of a trumpet, and they shall gather together his elect from the four winds, from one end of heaven to the other.
In this passage, Christ himself foretells a time when the following things will happen:
* He will descend from heaven
* He will be accompanied by angels
* He will come with the sounding of a trumpet
* He will come in the clouds of heaven
* He will gather together all of his elect (those in Christ) to him
Again, whatever your opinion of the mode or timing of the events described here, there is a clear description of a set of details that frame this predicted coming of Christ.
Look carefully at the two lists of details. Can there be any reasonable doubt that these two passages describe the same event? Is it possible that Christ and Paul foretell two different comings of Christ at two different times and for two different purposes using the exact same descriptions of the elements that are contingent to the event itself? Can you imagine the confusion, if so? And God is not the author of confusion.
Again, no matter what your opinion of the mode or timing of the fulfillment of these two passages, it is patently clear that they describe the same singular future (to them) event using language that is to identify how the audience will experience the coming of Christ that is described here. In fact, Paul says that he is speaking the word of the Lord in 1 Thess; and Matt 24 is the only place in all of Christ’s teaching where every single constituent element of 1 Thessalonians 4 is present.
Now, as to the mode and timing of the singular event described in these passages, there is no disagreement between Brother Hicks and myself. In his booklet “The AD 70 Theory of Last Things in the Light of Scripture and Natural Facts”, brother Hicks says on page 10 concerning Matthew 24:1-34:
“Most Bible students agree that in the destruction of Jerusalem by the Romans in AD 70 there was a symbolic “coming” of the Lord in vengeance on Israel. In the Old Testament, God often used their enemies to chastise them, and this was predicted in Matt 24 along with the signs that would precede it.”
Brother Hicks affirms that Matt 24:29-31 predicts the coming of the Lord in vengeance on Israel in 70 AD. Since 1 Thess 4 clearly predicts the exact same event along with the exact same contingent elements, he by extension (although he would not admit it) seems to affirm that 1 Thess 4 is also a prediction of the coming of the Lord in vengeance on Israel in AD 70. Thus, the coming of the Lord that is “predicted” was not a physical, bodily, visible coming but rather a coming of Christ “in like manner” as His Father had come before (John 5:19-23) in judgment through the use of earthly nations.
Brother Hicks agrees that Matt 24 (and thus he must with 1 Thess) predicts an event that is foreshadowed by the times and methods by which God “came” in judgment in the Old Testament. God’s “comings” in judgment in the Old Testament were always fulfilled through the use of earthly nations as the “rod of his anger” to carry out his justice on Israel and other nations. Christ confirms that His “coming” will be “in like manner” as He has seen his Father do in the past. Thus, Christ came in judgment when he utilized the Roman army to chastise Israel as predicted in Matt 24 and 1 Thess 4.
In his response, I would ask that Brother Hicks to be sure to demonstrate exegetically and hermeneutically why Matthew 24 and 1 Thess 4 are different in time and nature, if indeed he still believes that they are.